The svara here is that if all of the money belongs to the husband, then technically his wife's income is really his own.

Does it matter whether the couple uses a joint account and more generally whether the husband can actually access this money (or maybe he would need to pay out of "his own accessible money" because he "owns his wife's income" even though he can't use it in practice).

Regarding the last point, I have a tangent question - if someone says, I opened a Swiss bank account and put $10m there for you in cash and then they give you a puzzle which you need to solve to figure out where / how to access it - do you owe $1m in maaser in the meantime (e.g. if you never manage to find the money but actually it is stored legally in your name somewhere)? A less ridiculous scenario would be someone receiving a large sum as income and then having a lot of their wealth arrested (including what they had just received) - think of any Russian-Jewish oligarch that just sold a business or a football club only to find the profit money is locked up.

  • 1
    What's the difference if he owes it or she owes it?
    – Double AA
    Commented Jun 27 at 17:25
  • Who told you that all the money belongs to the husband? What do you mean?
    – MichoelR
    Commented Jun 27 at 18:18
  • 1
    My understanding of the Jewish law is that technically wives don’t own anything unless they go for a special provision which strips them of some financial right in case of divorce.
    – rudolfovic
    Commented Jun 27 at 18:35


You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .