According to Halacha, If a Kohen decides to donate sperm to a convert or divorcee, is the child conceived through that a Kohen or no?

The reason I ask is become some Poskim, such as R Moshe Feinstein, permit IVF for otherwise forbidden relationships. Under that logic does the Kohen status here carry on (because what creates the chalal status of a Kohen’s baby with a convert or divorcee is the forbidden sex, not them both being parents)?

  • 1
    I would first ask if a kohen donates to a regular woman is the child a kohen. Only if the answer is yes would your question be relevant. I was told that my question is a matter of doubt.
    – robev
    Commented Apr 13 at 18:51
  • Just to clarify, your premise is that the reason a Kohen who has a child with a convert or a divorcee has a non-Kohen child (Chalal) is because the intimacy is forbidden, so then if there's a child without intimacy (IVF), the child would be a Kohen? Or as you asking what's the mechanism which creates a Chalal? The forbidden union? Or the forbidden intimacy?
    – robev
    Commented Apr 13 at 18:52
  • 2
    So why not ask more generally: "What creates a Chalal, the forbidden union, or the forbidden intimacy?"
    – robev
    Commented Apr 14 at 6:11

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