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How can the oral law deniers explain the election of David ben Yishai when the Torah says "no Ammonite or Moabite shall enter into thd congregation of HaShem, none of their descendants, even to the 10th generation, forever"?

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    One common explanation is that the Pentateuch is dated to the 7th century BCE or later, which negates the issue. Another is that David's Moabite ancestry is fictitious. A third is that David never existed. I'm sure there are other explanations.
    – Harel13
    Mar 31 at 11:17
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    Thank you for your comment. That is true that these explanations are used by those who deny the Torah but my question is concerning the groups who deny the "Oral" Torah. Still, thank you for giving a answer.
    – Davies
    Mar 31 at 11:34
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    You mean Karaites and such?
    – Harel13
    Mar 31 at 11:54
  • I was thinking this through - if Ruth could not have converted and David comes from her male descendants then he might be Jewish (if the male descendants married Jewish women) but he would not be from Judah.
    – rosends
    Mar 31 at 11:56
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    Karaites seem to go by patrilineal descent, so for them David should be Jewish by virtue of descending from Boaz.
    – Tamir Evan
    Mar 31 at 16:08

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