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If a Jewess married to a Jew has a child from a non-Jew is that child a mamzer?

Is there agreement amongst the poskim about this?

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I don't know about modern poskim, but the Shulchan Aruch (Even HaEzer 4:19) rules that the child of a gentile and a Jewess independent of her marital status is not a mamzer but is disqualified from marrying a kohein (kohanim in general have stricter strictures restricting marriage). None of the standard commentaries there seem to disagree.

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    I have translated 'pagum' as 'disqualified' although the level of disqualification is not clear. For our purposes I think this suffices. As usual CYLOR if necessary.
    – Double AA
    Feb 9 '12 at 18:58
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    @Vram I thought the Halacha is we don't believe a woman to say that she cheated on her husband because we suspect she is simply lying to attain a divorce.
    – Double AA
    Feb 10 '12 at 6:23
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    I love this: "stricter strictures restricting".
    – Seth J
    May 25 '12 at 3:15
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    @SethJ judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/15191/…
    – Double AA
    May 25 '12 at 6:05

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