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Although it is forbidden for a Jew to eat food cooked by a gentile (YD 113), there are some exceptions - notably, food that is regularly eaten raw (113:1), or food that is not fit to be served by a formal state banquet (113:1).

Not all locations have the same culinary customs, which therefore creates an interesting set of questions.

  • If food is cooked in a country where it is customary to eat this food raw (therefore not subject to the laws of bishul akum), may it be consumed subsequently in a location where this food is not eaten raw?
  • Alternatively, if a food is cooked in a country where it is customary to only eat it cooked (and therefore subject to the prohibition of bishul akum), may it be consumed subsequently in a location where it is customary to eat the food raw?
  • Is there a difference between נאכל חי or אינו שולחן מלכים regarding this question?
  • Does it matter whether the food was cooked to be eaten locally and subsequently taken elsewhere, or if the food was cooked with the intention of taking to another location?

Looking for sources which discuss the psak halacha to the above questions, or sources which discuss the concepts that would lead to a definitive answer.

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From Halachapedia [originally https://www.ekollel.com/what-is-mashgiach]:

If a non-Jew cooks a food which is edible raw then it is permitted even if it is shipped to a country where it is not eaten raw.[66] This is not a common issue as a food which is edible in one country is usually edible in a different country as well.[67]

If a non-Jew prepared a food which is not edible raw in a country where it is not served on a king's table and shipped it to a country where the food is fit to be served on a king's table the food is forbidden because of bishul akum.[68]

If the situation is reversed, and a non-Jew prepared a food which is not edible raw and it is fit to be served on a king's table in that country, then the food is forbidden even if it is shipped to a country where it is not eaten on a king's table.[69]

I looked up some of the sources. The Shevet Halevi is machmir even if a person goes from a country that would be assur to a country that it would be mutar, he still says it is assur for that person!

The Kaf Hachaim is only talking about being served on a Kings table, not eaten raw.

So this seem to be would be a machlokes.


  1. Harav Yisroel Belsky zt"l as expressed in OU document A-88, see Pri Chadash Y.D. 113:22, Shiurei Beracha 113:1, Kaf Hachaim 113:11. Refer to Shevet Ha’Levi 9:163. The reason for this is since the food is edible raw in one place there is no certainty that it will not be edible raw in the place where it is shipped since it is many days from when the food is made and the food may be dry.

  2. OU document A-88

  3. Refer to Bishul Yisroel (teshuvos) pages 31-32. See OU document A-131.

  4. Harav Yisroel Belsky zt"l as expressed in OU document A-88, opinion of Harav Falk zt"l as expressed in Bishul Yisroel (teshuvos) pages 31-34 in depth. Refer to Shiurei Beracha 113:7, Ben Ish Chai Chukas 2:12, Chaim Shaul 1:74:6, Kaf Hachaim 113:20, Kerem Ephraim pages 62-63, Bishul Yisroel pages 61-62. In regard to tortillas see Dinei Machalei Nuchrim pages 93-101 in depth.

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  • +1 for great answer. I've done some more research; this is subject to a machlokes. According to OU Document A-88, R' Yisroel Belsky and R' Hershel Schachter disagreed about two of the cases above. According to Rav PE Falk (quoted above from Bishul Yisroel; full teshuva in R' Falk's responsa מחזה מאליהו ח"ב) in both cases it is forbidden.
    – chortkov2
    Mar 6 at 18:33

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