1 Kings 9:26 "King Solomon made a ship in Etzion Geber, which is beside Eloth on the shore of the Red Sea, in the land of Edom."

Does Eilat (which spelling is also spelled Eloth) belong to "the land of Edom", implying it does not belong to Israel (howbeit it was conquered by Israel, during biblical times)?

I understand that Hashem gave the Land of Canaan to Bney Israel, but did Hashem also give the Land of Edom to Bney Israel?

Which authorities, rabbinical or older, hold this view, that Eilat does or does not belong to Bney Israel, either by conquest or inheritance?

This post assumes that the modern-day Israeli city of Eilat is within the boundary of biblical Eilat. If you think otherwise, mention that in your answer.

The "related" mi yodeya link, about living in Israel and visiting Eilat, has two opposing answers, where one rabbi said, yes; and another rabbi, said no. In both cases, no elaboration is given and/or link is broken.



You must log in to answer this question.