Why doesn’t nusach ashkenaz say the korbanot before ashrei in mincha, like nusach sefard and Sefardim do? Especially since we say it before shacharis, so why not by mincha too?

  • This question is easily turned around: "Why do nusachim besides Ashkenaz say the korbanot again before mincha? Especially since they say it before shacharit, so why duplicate it by mincha too?"
    – magicker72
    Oct 3 at 22:12
  • @magicker72 the "especially" doesn't follow/is separate? The korban/ketoret mentioned in that section was associated with (offered at both) shacharit and mincha (Taanit 27b for more info)
    – Rabbi Kaii
    Oct 3 at 23:53
  • @magicker72 as Rabbi Kaii says, you can’t flip the question because the Tamid was given in both shacharit and mincha. Oct 4 at 0:00
  • The Rama (the quintessential ashkenazi rabbi) says to say Tamid before Mincha. I say it. Maybe your information is just wrong.
    – Double AA
    Oct 4 at 1:40
  • 2
    @DoubleAA basciallly every nusach ashkenaz Siddur I’ve come across starts at ashrei… Oct 4 at 2:59

1 Answer 1


The dirshu mishna berura has a note on סימון מ"ח that the reason the minhag didn't take hold (like קרבנות of שחרית) is due to the fact that we see from יחזקאל that the תמיד של בין הערבים wont exist לעתיד לבא.

  • 1
    Welcome to MiYodeya Tzaff and thanks for this first answer. Great to have you learn with us!
    – mbloch
    Oct 4 at 3:29
  • 1
    Hey, would you mind explaining the context in yechezkel and why this would be that the mincha tamid will no longer exist? Oct 4 at 4:40
  • Aside from the highly questionable historicity of this claim, why does that alleged premise justify skipping it before לעתיד לבוא?
    – Double AA
    Oct 4 at 12:55
  • @DoubleAA you'd have to ask the Dirshu folks; don't shoot the messenger.
    – msh210
    Oct 4 at 19:28

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .