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Why haven't Jews had a consistent language throughout history? What was wrong with Lashon Hakodesh (besides for learning the local language)? We adopted Aramaic with a mixture of LHK and local variations of this such as Judeo-Arabic, Ladino and Yiddish. Was this conglomeration of LHK and the local language by intent? A new language seems to be forming which is known as yeshivish. Though I'm not sure if that falls under the same category as the previous languages listed. Any thoughts?

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I mean they kept their language throughout 210 years of slavery in Egypt (see Vayikra Rabbah 32) does that count as "consistent".

The other instances you cite such as Yiddish, Ladino etc. are a product of living in galus, where they maintained elements of lashon hakodesh but also had to adapt their language to the countries they were living in.

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  • We're we not in galut in Egypt? Sep 11 at 9:33
  • Yes, but up a point. One could argue that it was an enforced stop due to famine, and then they were thrust into shibud mitzrayim.
    – Dov
    Sep 11 at 9:49
  • Being led away by the Babylonian army wasn't a forced exile? Fleeing the Romans? I'm not trying to argue with you, I'm just trying to understand this answer Sep 11 at 11:40
  • If the second part is problematic I'll keep just the first part that mentions the midrash
    – Dov
    Sep 11 at 11:56
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    Actually, I think you've gotten to the ikar of the matter- how was Galut Mitsrayim different from the other galuyot? Why were we able to keep our language in Egypt for 210 years without the Torah, but unable to do so in Babel for 70 years with the Torah Sep 11 at 11:59

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