In the Shulchan Aruch Yoreh Deah 89, the rule is brought that after eating meat one may not eat cheese for 6 hours (other opinions are cited too, about how long to wait).

As far as I am aware, the practice is that this applies to drinking milk too.

What is the source for this? Perhaps the Halacha is a restriction on eating only, which involves chewing, but drinking is permitted?

  • This is usually discussed the other way around: waiting for dairy after drinking meat broth where it won't get in your teeth. That is generally assumed to be a dispute between the Rambam and Rashi and the tur says to wait as a stringency out of doubt. (We can make it extra fun by asking if you have to wait to drink milk after chewing beef without swallowing it.)
    – Double AA
    Commented Aug 28, 2023 at 14:39
  • 1
    Drinking liquid milk wasn't very common back then. It was only available in calving season near farms. Cheese was preserved dairy that lasted all year so would probably be the default way of talking about consuming dairy.
    – Double AA
    Commented Aug 28, 2023 at 14:42
  • Thanks for the edit. I can totally see why cheese would just be an example and milk is included as well, but on the other hand it would be reasonable to assume that milk is excluded as it will not involve chewing. The Rashash in Chulin 103: touches on the point, but not directly. I would have that this point would have been addressed explicitly by some early Achronim.
    – Yehuda
    Commented Aug 29, 2023 at 9:53

2 Answers 2


The Rambam מאכלות אסורות in 9:28 mentions milk in place of cheese;

מִי שֶׁאָכַל בָּשָׂר בַּתְּחִלָּה בֵּין בְּשַׂר בְּהֵמָה בֵּין בְּשַׂר עוֹף לֹא יֹאכַל אַחֲרָיו חָלָב עַד שֶׁיִּהְיֶה בֵּינֵיהֶן כְּדֵי שִׁעוּר סְעֻדָּה אַחֶרֶת וְהוּא כְּמוֹ שֵׁשׁ שָׁעוֹת מִפְּנֵי הַבָּשָׂר שֶׁל בֵּין הַשִּׁנַּיִם שֶׁאֵינוֹ סָר בְּקִנּוּחַ:

Although he doesn’t use the word the “drink” he does change from the word cheese that the Gemara uses, to milk.

  • @shababnik 's answer should complete this answer.
    – bondonk
    Commented Sep 13, 2023 at 12:17
  • @bondonk Na, his answer is incorrect. The question has nothing to do with "shem achila"
    – Double AA
    Commented Sep 13, 2023 at 12:49
  • @DoubleAA The question wants to know why drinking is equated with eating. There's your answer.
    – Shababnik
    Commented Sep 13, 2023 at 13:17
  • @Shababnik No it didn't. It wants to know why drinking milk effects a need to wait when milk doesn't get in your teeth. You have misunderstood the question.
    – Double AA
    Commented Sep 13, 2023 at 14:56
  • The getting stuck in teeth part is only mentioned as a "perhaps" at the end the question.
    – Shababnik
    Commented Sep 13, 2023 at 15:00

Rambam perek 4 shvuot halacha 3:

מִי שֶׁנִּשְׁבַּע שֶׁלֹּא יֹאכַל הַיּוֹם וְשָׁתָה חַיָּב שֶׁהַשְּׁתִיָּה בִּכְלַל אֲכִילָה. לְפִיכָךְ אִם אָכַל וְשָׁתָה אֵינוֹ חַיָּב אֶלָּא מַלְקוֹת אַחַת אִם הָיָה מֵזִיד אוֹ חַטָּאת אַחַת אִם הָיָה שׁוֹגֵג: When a person takes an oath that he will not eat on a specific day and drinks, he is liable, because [a prohibition against] eating includes drinking. Therefore, if he both ate and drank, he is liable only for one set of lashes if he acted willfully or one sin offering if he transgressed inadvertently.

Drinking is the same as eating.

  • If drinking is the same as eating, why is the shiur for drinking a reviis and not a kezayis? Why do drinking and eating not combine on yom kippur towards a full shiur? You have shows one place where they have the same rule, but they aren't universally identical. You still have to show how that applies here to this rule.
    – Double AA
    Commented Sep 13, 2023 at 14:57

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