In Psalms 18:26:
עִם־חָסִ֥יד תִּתְחַסָּ֑ד עִם־גְּבַ֥ר תָּ֜מִ֗ים תִּתַּמָּֽם
Why is the word עם־גבר vocalised as עִם־גְּבַ֥ר
ʕim-ggəvár instead of עִם־גֶּבֶר
ʕim-ggέvɛr? I am asking this because גֶּבֶר
ggέvɛr seems to be the usual vocalisation.
Also, curiously, the Secunda renders this word as γαβρ
gabr, which would correspond to Tiberian Hebrew גֶּבֶר
I have heard various explanations from different people, here listed in order of credibility (according to me):
Raba (=Ibn Ezra) says that גְּבַר
ggəváris an adjective and is not in construct [with תָּמִ֗ים
tʰɔmíym] (b), but I'm not sure what he meant by adjective, or what this tells us about the relationship between גְּבַר
Rashash (=Samuel Strashun) quoted Rambam (=Maimonides) saying that גֶּבֶר
ggέvɛris sometimes called גְּבַר
ggəvár, but I tried to look at Rambam's original statement (c), and I couldn't quite reach the same conclusion.
ggəváris the Aramaic version of גֶּבֶר
ggέvɛr. (d) While this is true, it doesn't explain why an Aramaic word ended up in the middle of a psalm.
Someone suggested that גְּבַר
ggəváris simply the construct of גֶּבֶר
ggέvɛr, but I could not find evidence of this claim; on the contrary, the construct of גֶּבֶר
ggέvɛrseems to again be גֶּבֶר
Someome suggested that they are the same word, and the stress was simply moved backwards for poetic purposes.
I would appreciate if someone can clarify the whole situation. In my limited knowledge of Hebrew grammar, I don't think a segolate
CέCεC can have a form that is
CəCáC, as they belong to different templates.
ουεμ γαβρ θαμιμ θεμαμ̣μ̣α̣μ̣
gabr seems to reflect the segolate
ggέvɛr (before the evolution of segolates CaCC > CɛCɛC).
גבר - תואר ואיננו סמוך
My translation: גבר
ggəvár - adjective and not construct
ובעל גבר על משקל ארץ ולפעמים קורא גבר על משקל גובל [גבר על משקל גבל כדכתיב זקני גבל (יחזקאל כז ט)]
My translation: ובעל גבר
uvaʕal ggέvɛr in the template of ארץ
έrεṣ, sometimes pronounced גבר
√gbr in the template of גובל (
√gbr in the template of גבל
gəvál as the scripture says זקני גבל
ziqnéy gəvál in Ezekiel 27:9]
This is what I don't understand, because according to my understanding, Rambam is saying that
ggέvɛr is sometimes pronounced
ggovár, but then in brackets he is saying
ggəvár are different pronunciationns, so why would Rambam put the latter in brackets as if the latter was explaining the former?
For context, this is a commentary on Mishnah Bekhorot 7:5 listing conditions which would disqualify one from priesthood, one of which is וּבַעַל גֶּבֶר
(d) Targum Onkelos Genesis 2:24 says:
:עַל כֵּן יִשְׁבּוֹק גְּבַר בֵּית מִשְׁכְּבֵי אַבוּהִי וְאִמֵּהּ וְיִדְבַּק בְּאִתְּתֵהּ וִיהוֹן לְבִסְרָא חָד
(e) Zechariah 13:7 says:
:חֶ֗רֶב עוּרִ֚י עַל־רֹעִי֙ וְעַל־גֶּ֣בֶר עֲמִיתִ֔י נְאֻ֖ם יְהֹוָ֣ה צְבָא֑וֹת הַ֚ךְ אֶת־הָֽרֹעֶה֙ וּתְפוּצֶ֣יןָ הַצֹּ֔אן וַֽהֲשִֽׁבֹתִ֥י יָדִ֖י עַל־הַצֹּֽעֲרִֽים
although someone expressed doubt as to whether גֶּ֣בֶר is in construct state here. But another line of evidence is that segolates CeCeC seem to always have construct state the same CeCeC.