I did some background research on the RaMBaM for my BA Thesis and remember that there has been one source that stated something quite platonic that for him having correct abstracted thought of something is to take part of it, which does not really fit into the picture of Maimonides.
It's a pity I cannot remember the source or find it again...
Can anybody think of something plausible or refer me to some possible source?
EDIT FOR CLARIFYING THE RESPECTIVE BASIC PHILOSOPHY: (in simple words, for further information look up the key-words)
It all goes back to the ancient aristotelian platonic dispute about the (non-physical) structure of the cosmos, ie. ontology. Plato held that everything in the (physical) world is just an imperfect image of an perfect (non-physical) idea or form (https://philosophynews.com/the-third-man-argument-part-1/), ie. the thing below „takes part“ in the idea above. Aristotle could not see a downward emanation like this an tried to structure the comos from below upwards (https://philosophynews.com/the-third-man-argument-part-2/), ie.from the sensual perception of a thing through abstracting concepts about it, that´s why he is generally seen as the archetype rationalist. In academic circles Maimonides has mostly been seen as mere aristotelian, at least with regards to the rational faculty, while a strict dichotomy has been upheld between rationality and mysticism. Not until quite recently Maimonides has there also been interpreted in a mystical dimension (thanks to David Blumenthal and Jose Faur for example). See for example this online article: https://thelehrhaus.com/scholarship/mysticism-and-its-alternatives-rethinking-maimonides/
In Ashlagian kabbala, as to corporeal beings are separated from one another by spacial distance, two spiritual beings are separated from one another by difference of form (https://www.sefaria.org/Petichah_LeChokhmat_HaKabbalah.13.1?lang=bi). This seems to be compatible to Plato´s Theory. A quite literal reading of https://www.sefaria.org/Guide_for_the_Perplexed%2C_Part_1.68.4?lang=bi: „[the] intellect, is at the same time the intelligens, for the intellect is itself the agens which abstracts the form and comprehends it, and that is the action, on account of which it is called the intelligens; but itself and its action are identical“ and „The intellect, that which comprehends and that which is comprehended, are therefore the same, whenever a real comprehension takes place.“ suggests for Maimonides an aristotelian methodology, but rather a Platonic ontology, which could be postulated like in Ashlagian kabbala.
Can a legitimate Maimonidean Ontology of Thought be understood in this way, ie. that the correctly abstracting individual „takes part in“ (ie. becomes one with) the perfect idea (platonic) / concept (aristotelean)?