Simple question here, maybe an obvious one: Are candies (or a cookies, etc.) with "powdered milk" in its ingredient list considered as "Milk", after having eaten Meat for less than 6 hours?

Thanks in advance!

  • Maybe I'm missing something -- why wouldn't powdered milk be treated as a dairy product?
    – rosends
    Commented Dec 19, 2022 at 0:23
  • 1
    Yeah definitely dairy. (If anything, more concentrated than liquid milk.) There's an argument that the rabbinic enactment of chalav yisrael per se was only instituted on liquid milk -- we see it didn't apply to butter, for example -- but that's something else entirely. (Many communities did trust non-Jewish butter, but it most certainly was "dairy" and they wouldn't eat it after meat!)
    – Shalom
    Commented Dec 19, 2022 at 0:26
  • en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Powdered_milk Commented Dec 19, 2022 at 1:35

1 Answer 1


This issue in brought up in the book Lilkut Shoshanim volume 5 from Rabbi Elyahu Bahbout, head of one of the most important sefaradic kolelim in Eretz Israel, in pages 172 to 180, which is available here.

He gives some possible arguments that powdered milk could have a parve status but he writes that his heart is reluctant to rely on them (see second paragraph of page 177).

  • 1
    That’s heartwarming to know there’s such amazing sefaradic halakhic kollelim :) I kinda « feel » the same way. It does sounds like parve, it looks parve, heck, it even tastes parve… But it just doesn’t sit right with me either. Thanks for your precise answer and sourcing!
    – Zacchino
    Commented Dec 20, 2022 at 1:09

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