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Given that it is well established both in the writings of the Radbaz on this matter and the oral traditions of Ethiopian Jews themselves, that it was a common occurrence for Christians from the surrounding areas to be converted by the Ethiopian community. Why did Maran Ovadia Yosef pasken so decisively that the Ethiopians are complete Jews if there is a likelihood of the average Ethiopian Jew being descended from at least one convert?

*And a note so this does not get removed: The question I posed previously on this topic is not exactly analogous, as I asked for why he had an implicit assumption that they were Jewish in the first place. Where as here I am asking about a detail of his psak as opposed to his psak as a whole.

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    See: torahmusings.com/2017/12/…
    – Shmuel
    Aug 29, 2022 at 15:58
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    @Shmuel This is an interesting Torah Musings. I’m surprised that it didn’t mention the view taken by the Lubavitcher Rebbe in regard to the Ethiopian Jews. There used to be a website called FailedMessiah.com that slammed the Rebbe for years because he also questioned their status when asked repeatedly.
    – Yaacov Deane
    Aug 29, 2022 at 16:35
  • That guy needs to get a life
    – Tatiana Nikolaevna
    Aug 29, 2022 at 16:38
  • he may have. the website is no longer active.
    – Dude
    Aug 29, 2022 at 16:50
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    @Shmuel His intentions were good. But when he didn’t receive the response from the Rebbe which he had hoped for, he got quite angry. It changed the course of his life. But in light of the more detailed considerations in your link to the Torah Musings article, the response & position taken by the Rebbe makes more sense. It’s a valuable contribution to this subject.
    – Yaacov Deane
    Aug 29, 2022 at 17:08

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