In a comment I was told

Technically, [an Eruv] needs the permission of each non Jew that lives in the eruv if you are using his property or home, but practically we rely on the local government that has the right to search a home in a time of need, as enough authority to allow the eruv on their behalf.

What happens if someone in an Eruv, that is a non-Jew, wishes to explicitly be excluded from the Eruv? Is the consent from the government, following the logic above, superior to explicit rejection by the property owner?

1 Answer 1


The Shulchan Aruch rules that even explicit refusal from the owner does not create a problem (Orach Chaim 382:11). However, the Gra there claims that this is not universally agreed and depends on the two opinions in siman 367.

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