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וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּה֩ נָתַ֨תִּי לָכֶ֜ם אֶת־כׇּל־עֵ֣שֶׂב ׀ זֹרֵ֣עַ זֶ֗רַע אֲשֶׁר֙ עַל־פְּנֵ֣י כׇל־הָאָ֔רֶץ וְאֶת־כׇּל־הָעֵ֛ץ אֲשֶׁר־בּ֥וֹ פְרִי־עֵ֖ץ זֹרֵ֣עַ זָ֑רַע לָכֶ֥ם יִֽהְיֶ֖ה לְאׇכְלָֽה׃

God said, “See, I give you every seed-bearing plant that is upon all the earth, and every tree that has seed-bearing fruit; they shall be yours for food.
Genesis 1:29

The implication here is that non-seed-bearing plants were not to be eaten.

Was that actually the case, and if so why does it no longer apply?

(Searching in Google for "fern" or "fiddlehead" proved useless, as there are so many recipes that call for "kosher salt".)

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You are correct but after Adam was cursed then the plants themselves [and non-seed-bearing ones] were permitted too. It's explained in the Ramban there.

https://www.sefaria.org/Genesis.1.29?ven=The_Contemporary_Torah,_Jewish_Publication_Society,_2006&lang=bi&with=Ramban&lang2=en

...

The meaning of the expression, every herb yielding seed… and every tree, in which is the fruit of a tree yielding seed; to you it shall be for food, is that they should eat the seeds of herbs, such as the grains of wheat, barley, beans, and the like, and that they should eat all fruits of the tree; but the tree itself was not given to them for food, nor was the herb itself until man was cursed and he was told, And thou shalt eat the herb of the field (Gen. 3:18)

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