Can the contrasting views of non-Jewish soul from Maimonides and from Kabbalah be reconciled?
Maimonides is quite explicit that all human beings have the potential for a G-dly soul, which is manifest in proportion to his intellectual apprehension of G-d (see here, starting at page 15). His arguments have, at least superficially, the appearance of common sense. G-d "breathed" a G-dly soul into Adam, the ancestor of all man. Free will is the product of the interplay between the G-dly and animal souls, and the Torah requires non-Jews to have free will, otherwise the concepts of non-Jew reward and punishment make zero sense.
On the other hand, the vast majority of Kabbalists argue that only Jews have a G-dly soul. However, even from my little understanding of Kabbalah, it is explicitly clear that the G-dly soul begins as a point within the animal soul. In order to be entirely manifest, in each of its five "levels", it must be developed through proper action, with each completed "level" containing the beginning point for the next. Thus the initial point is expanded into a full Nefesh, and the new point within that completed Nefesh is expanded to a full Ruach, etc.. (see Introduction to the Book of the Zohar by the Baal HaShulam).
Can it be argued (or are we forced to argue) that, while Maimonides discusses the potential for G-dly souls, the Kabbalists are discussing the actuality: that (in their time anyway) most non-Jews had done zero work building their G-dly soul up from its infinitesimal point, and therefore can be considered as having no G-dly soul? And if not, how do Kabbalists counter Maimonides' very sound justifications for the Jewish and non-Jewish equivalence in soul potential?