The Mishna Berura 31:3 explains why we do not wear Tefillin on Y"T as follows;

ויו"ט ג"כ מיקרי אות דבפסח מצרים כתיב אות והוקשו כל מועדי ה' בפ' אמור

The Rishonim all give different reasons for it, whether it is because Y"T is also called Shabbos, or because it is assur to do work, none of them (that I found) give this reason.

The Shaare Tzion brings the source as "Achronim". I checked over 10 Achronim who all give the other reasons, none bring this reason.

So my question is as folows;

  1. Which Achronim is The MB referring to?
  2. Why did he need a different reason than all the Rishonim (Tosfos, The Rosh, etc.)?
  3. Which Passuk is he referring to when he says that Pesach is called a "ois"?
  • והיה הדם לכם לאות?
    – Joel K
    Jun 7, 2022 at 15:46
  • @joel K I thought of that. That was specifically the blood, not the Yom Tov. The ois was the blood on the post, what does that have to do with the YT and is there a Hekesh from other Yomim Tovim to the blood of the Korban Pesach?
    – Chatzkel
    Jun 7, 2022 at 15:47
  • For what it's worth, Oz VeHadar cites Exodus 12:13, like @JoelK suggested
    – robev
    Jun 7, 2022 at 17:57
  • Isn't this clearly mentioned in Menachos 36 that Rabbi Akiva says that tefillin should not be worn on Shabbos and Yom tov because they are an os?
    – Yoreinu
    Jun 8, 2022 at 11:13
  • 1
    @yoreinu yes, of course that’s what the Gemara says. But all the Rishonim and Achronim explain the ois as either the fact that there’s issur melacha or because it’s called shabbos. The MB seems to pick a different pshat, hence the the questions
    – Chatzkel
    Jun 8, 2022 at 11:24


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