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Hi I am posting my question again because the old post is closed, but I edited my question to avoid problems:

Mishne Torah,Kings and Wars Ch. 6:

"War is not conducted against anyone in the world until they are first offered peace (and refuse it), whether this is a Discretionary War or a War of Mitzvoh, as it says, “when you come close to the city to fight with it, you shall call to it to make peace” (Deut. 20:10). If they make peace and accept the Seven Commandments incumbent upon the Sons of Noah (Gentiles), none of them are killed, but they must pay us tribute, as it says, “and they shall be for you a tributary, and they shall serve you” (Deut. 20:11). If they propose to accept upon themselves the payment of the tribute but not servitude to us or they accept servitude but not the tribute, we ignore their proposal until they accept both. The servitude referred to here is one of disgrace and is demeaning. They are not to raise their heads up to Israel for any reason. They must be subjugated to us and may never be assigned to a Position over us. The tribute they must pay shall be for service of the king, with their bodies and their money, such as the building of the walls and the strengthening of fortresses and the building of the royal palace and similar, as it says, “And this is the account of the levy which King Solomon raised to build the Temple of G-d, and his palace, and Milo, and the wall of Jerusalem…and all the store-cities which Solomon had…the Emorites who remained…and Solomon imposed a head-tax, until this very day. And of the Children of Israel, Solomon made none a bondsman; but they were the soldiers and his servants and his officers and his captains and those in charge of his chariots and his horsemen” (I Kings 9:15-22).

Why were only the countries mentioned slaves?(the Emorites for example) I don't know what God's thoughts are about the slaves (non-Jewish), but it just seems to me as if he is not interested in these people (slaves)...Is there any source in the torah that does say that a slave was pleasing to God in his eyes (I mean not a slave of God but a slave of a man)? and when I think of the messianic kingdom, the gentiles will probably become slaves as well, BECAUSE, when the Messiah comes, all Non-Jews accept the 7 Mitzwot. and You see in Mishne Toorah Kings and Laws ch. 6 what happens...or am I wrong? But what is that for peace? I don't know but for me the servitude and the tribute don't sound like peace. I'm trying to understand it but I just can't understand it.

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    You've got about four or five questions here. It's a bit of a ramble and lacking in structure. If you need any assistance in formulating a question I suggest visiting the Help Center, especially the subsection on Asking Commented Mar 10, 2022 at 15:14
  • sry but i have only 2 Questions and I have no other questions either.
    – Kevin
    Commented Mar 10, 2022 at 15:40
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    1) "Why were only the countries mentioned slaves?" 2) "I don't know what God's thoughts are about the slaves non-Jewish, but it just seems to me as if he is not interested in these people slaves" (implied question is "is God concerned with gentile slaves?) 3) "is there any source in the torah that does say that a slave was pleasing to God in his eyes(i mean Not a slave of god i mean a slave of a man)?" Commented Mar 10, 2022 at 15:44
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    4) " the gentiles will probably become slaves as well, BECAUSE, when the Messiah comes, all Non-jews accept the 7 Mitzwot. and u see in mishne torah kings and laws ch. 6 whats happen...or am i wrong?" 5) "But what is that for a Peace?" Commented Mar 10, 2022 at 15:45
  • Additionally, several of these questions are vague, incoherent, and lack reference. Commented Mar 10, 2022 at 15:45

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