Similar to this quesion, I have been bothered for a while now with the following question: How is it that the Talmud was written with no indication at all between drashos gemuros and asmachtos?

  • May I ask why you expect such an indication to exist?
    – robev
    Dec 5, 2021 at 7:43
  • @robev because the ramifications are big.
    – Hershy S.
    Dec 6, 2021 at 0:33


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