"וַיַּשְׁכֵּם אַבְרָהָם בַּבֹּקֶר אֶל־הַמָּקוֹם אֲשֶׁר־עָמַד שָׁם אֶת־פְּנֵי ה'" Genesis.19.27
I don't understand how the conclusion follows:
- The original verse in Psalms uses two verbs "עמד" and "פלל", so it clearly differentiates between Pinhas' resistance and whatever יפלל means. It could not mean "Pinchas prayed and prayed".
- According to the original Biblical narrative, Pinhas didn't pray, he did פלילים meaning a revengeful act (compare "ונתן בפלילים").
- IIRC, (I looked up Even Shoshan dictionary) the word עמד is never used as prayer in the scripture, so the conclusion is simply factually wrong. Otherwise we should use it in verses like "וּפַרְעֹה חֹלֵם וְהִנֵּה עֹמֵד עַל־הַיְאֹר׃"
So what's the logic of this conclusion, or is it just a Tirutz to attribute the prayer to Abraham?