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Hope this isn't too nuanced.

There's a pretty established rule in the Shulchan Aruch that when he writes a law, and then writes "some say" (ויש אומרים) something else, he's ruling like the first opinion, and not like the "some say". He just wants you to be aware of the second opinion.

Now, sometimes the Shulchan Aruch writes a different expression, "there are some who require" (יש מי שמצריך). I would think this is no different than the rule above. However, here's an example where that seems to not hold true (Yoreh Deah 69:19):

אחר שנמלח הבשר והודח מותר ליתנו אפילו במים שאינן רותחין ויש מי שמצריך ליתנו במים רותחין

After the meat has been salted and rinsed, it is permissible to put it in boiling water. And there are some who require you to put it in boiling water.

The Shach (§ 78) there writes:

ולהכי הביא המחבר סברא זו דהיכא דאפשר יש לחוש לעשות כן וכמ"ש בב"י

And this is the reason that the Shulchan Aruch brought this opinion, since in cases that it's possible one should be diligent to do so, like he writes in his Beis Yosef.

Where does the Shach see this is the intent of the Shulchan Aruch? He does bring that the Shulchan Aruch in his Beis Yosef writes that when possible one should put it in boiling water, but who says when he wrote his Shulchan Aruch he still held so? Does the Shach somehow see this from the wording of "יש מי שמצריך". Meaning, if the Shulchan Aruch didn't hold of it, he would have written ויש אומרים? Is this is a rule that is demonstrable elsewhere? Or something specific to here...

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  • When he mentions a second option as some say, he wants you to be aware of it. But why? Maybe because being strict is a good idea, maybe something else. We can check the beis yosef to see if there are any hints what he was thinking. General rules about this sort of thing, while popular, almost never hold.
    – Double AA
    Oct 10 at 16:01
  • Many have wrote on this topic, Rabbi Ovadiah Yosef probably, and his son too (EYn Yitzchak)
    – Dr. Shmuel
    Oct 10 at 19:34
  • lets see... hebrewbooks.org/56804
    – Dr. Shmuel
    Oct 10 at 20:54
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The Kaf Hachaim Orach Chaim 13:7 explains these rules and says that when the Mechaber says a kulah and then says a “yesh osrim” he means to be machmir lchatchila. If he is machmir and brings a “yesh matirim” then means to pasken the first way (he even quotes Y”D 69:20)

והוא ע"ד מ"ש הפו' ז"ל דכל מקום שסותם מרן ז"ל להתיר ואח"כ כותב יש אוסרים חושש לסברת האוסרים לכתחילה כמ"ש רבינו חיד"א במחב"ר יו"ד סי' נ"ה סוף אות ד' לדעת הכנה"ג ודעמיה. וכן צידד הש"ך בפסק הנהגת איסור והיתר שבסוף סי' רמ"ב בדעת מרן ז"ל, והביאו המחב"ר שם ובס' זבחי צדק סי' ס"ט אות כ"ט, וכ"מ מדברי השו"ג או"ח סי' ל"ב אות ל"ד והבאתי דבריו בסה"ק קול יעקב סי' ל"ב אות ן' וכ"מ מדברי הנה"ש על או"ח סי' ל"ב אות י"ח והב"ד בס' הנז' אות רל"ה יעו"ש, וכן כתב מרן ז"ל עצמו ביו"ד סי' ס"ט סעי' ך' יעו"ש, ועוד עיין ביו"ד סי' רפ"ו סעי' יו"ד.

https://www.sefaria.org/Kaf_HaChayim_on_Shulchan_Arukh%2C_Orach_Chayim.13.7.1?lang=bi

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  • It's interesting he cites seif 20, where the Mechaber says a koola then yesh mi sheomer a chumrah, and then writes veyesh lachosh lechatchila. Why did he write that in seif 20 and not in seif 19...
    – robev
    Nov 24 at 21:06

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