Many kiruv/outreach Rabbis, in an attempt to prove the veracity of the Torah, will base their claim on the concept of National Revelation. Part of that proof, they say, is that the Torah states that no other people will claim a national revelation and live. I'm not asking if that statement is true or not, but I'm wondering if the Torah really says that. The verse they cite is Deuteronomy 4:32:
כִּ֣י שְׁאַל־נָא֩ לְיָמִ֨ים רִֽאשֹׁנִ֜ים אֲשֶׁר־הָי֣וּ לְפָנֶ֗יךָ לְמִן־הַיּוֹם֙ אֲשֶׁר֩ בָּרָ֨א אֱלֹהִ֤ים ׀ אָדָם֙ עַל־הָאָ֔רֶץ וּלְמִקְצֵ֥ה הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם וְעַד־קְצֵ֣ה הַשָּׁמָ֑יִם הֲנִֽהְיָ֗ה כַּדָּבָ֤ר הַגָּדוֹל֙ הַזֶּ֔ה א֖וֹ הֲנִשְׁמַ֥ע כָּמֹֽהוּ׃
You have but to inquire about bygone ages that came before you, ever since God created man on earth, from one end of heaven to the other: has anything as grand as this ever happened, or has its like ever been known?
Now, this verse is explicitly talking about the past. Never before the Jewish people was there a claim of national revelation. Fine. But where is it evident this verse is also talking about the future? Is it something that is perforce somewhere in the verse, with regards to its wording or grammar? Do any of the commentaries point this out?
I'm interested in a demonstration from the verse itself, as this verse is supposed to convince the non-believer.
Note: I once asked one of these outreach Rabbis where they saw it in the verse. They said it's obvious that it's included in the verse, because otherwise there's no reason for the Torah to say it. Meaning, there isn't a novelty in the verse unless it includes the future as well. This was very unconvincing, especially if we're using this verse to convince someone who doesn't believe there is nothing extra or redundant in the Torah.