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According to Heiser, Michael S. and many Christians, outside of Isaiah 7:14, the word almah occurs only six times in the Old Testament. In all but one of those occurrences, the context provides no clue as to the sexual status of the young woman or women. Virginity is suggested, however, in Song of Solomon 6:8, where almah occurs in the plural (rnthp, alcunot): "There are sixty queens and eighty concubines, and virgins (-nthy, alamot) without number."

He wrote in "I Dare You Not to Bore Me with the Bible":

The distinction between queens, concubines, and alamot is important. A queen was a royal wife, which obviously entails a sexual relationship with the king. A concubine was a sexual partner who held certain privileges, but not to the level of a wife. This would suggest that the third group, the alamot, had no sexual relationship with the king. An almah in this text is a candidate to become a concubine or a wife. This is precisely what we see in the book of Esther. In Esther 2:3 and 2:8 we read that Esther was held in waiting for 12 months with "young virgins"(na'arah betulah) under the supervision of Hegai while the king sought a new queen. The use of na'ar and betulah indicates that a "young woman" (na'ar) could certainly be a "virgin" (betulah). Esther was eventually taken from the "young virgins" under Hegai to the king for an evening liaison. Afterward, she was Afterward, she was assigned to a "second harem" supervised by Shaashgaz, who "was in charge of the concubines" (Esth 2:14)—indicating that Esther was no longer a virgin, but now a concubine. That Esther and the king had a sexual relationship during the night is clear from Esther 2:14: "She Esther would not go in to the king again, unless the king delighted in her and she was summoned by name." To "go in" to a man or woman is a common Old Testament euphemism for sexual intercourse (e.g., Gen 16:2; 29:21; 38:8; Dent 21:13; 25:5; Judg 15:1). The Esther story describes the king's harem as divided into three groups: queen, concubines and young virgins. The last of those groups is described as naarah betulah, "young virgins." In parallel, Song of Songs 6:8 has the same threefold division, but uses almah (plural: alamot) to describe the third group. This indicates that (naarah betulah) and (alamot) are likely both descriptions of "virgins." Nonetheless, since Esther is never called an almah, could almah still be excluded from the Old Testament vocabulary for "virgin"? For the assertion that "almah cannot mean virgin" to be correct, naarah and betulah must never overlap with almah. But they do. In Genesis 24, Rebekah is referred to with all three terms (naarah in 24:14, betulah in 24:16, and almah in 24:43), indicating that the terms could certainly be construed as synonymous.

The question is: Is it true what he argued, that alamot in Song of Solomon 6:8 were necessarily virgins, and if not why not?

If his argument is true and bethula means alone virgin, then why is בְּתוּל֖וֹת not used instead of וַעֲלָמ֖וֹת?

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  • The first translation I found sefaria.org/… has "damsels" not "virgins." The second one has "maidens" chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/16450 so I'm not sure what prompts your question.
    – rosends
    Jun 2, 2021 at 19:52
  • @rosends . he (and others) questioned this translation. argues that Virginity is suggested ,for the reasons he mentioned.
    – capri reds
    Jun 2, 2021 at 19:58
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    but his translation is driven by his understanding (not vice versa) -- he looks at parallel situations and says "since there it refers to virgins, here it must also, but with different words" instead of saying "because there are different words it does NOT refer to virgins."
    – rosends
    Jun 2, 2021 at 20:07
  • @rosends can we say that the usage of וַעֲלָמ֖וֹת instead of בְּתוּל֖וֹת in song of Solomon 6:8, because the statue of virginity of those young girls, were not known yet?
    – capri reds
    Jun 2, 2021 at 20:43
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    It might just have been immaterial so a word was chosen to identify them with no regard to sexual history.
    – rosends
    Jun 2, 2021 at 21:30

2 Answers 2

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Even if you accept his reasoning at face value, that

The distinction between queens, concubines, and alamot is important. A queen was a royal wife, which obviously entails a sexual relationship with the king. A concubine was a sexual partner who held certain privileges, but not to the level of a wife. This would suggest that the third group, the alamot, had no sexual relationship with the king. An almah in this text is a candidate to become a concubine or a wife.

this does not indicate that the almah is a virgin. She could be a one-night stand. In fact, a virgin would be less likely to engage in or offer casual sex (even with a King) than a non-virgin.

The point is not that almah can never mean a virgin, just that it specifically means a young woman, with no reference to her virginity or lack thereof. So in the case of the verse referring to an almah giving birth, it would be highly illogical to assume the almah in question is a virgin with no other basis than the use of the word almah. It definitely cannot be used to support the Christian faith in any way.

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Update

The use of עלמה is specifically meant to not be a בתולה because the comparison to queen and concubine is a woman who may (or may not) have had sexual relations without being married. Shir Hashirim is deliberately set up for allegory and not literal meaning at all. Thus the literal meaning of almah is a young woman who is not attached to a man as the alternative to a queen or a concubine. That is why the allegory as explained below is given. If the term besulah had been given, the fourth alternative (an almah but not a besulah) would have to have been associated as well.

ORIGINAL

It does not necessarily refer to virgins. Shir Hashirim 6:8 as we see in Rashi, the three groups refer to the inhabitants of the world.

8 There are sixty queens and eighty concubines, and innumerable maidens.

There are sixty queens: Abraham and his descendants (Song Zuta). The sons of Keturah are sixteen. Ishmael and his sons are thirteen. Isaac and his sons are three. The sons of Jacob are twelve. The sons of Esau are sixteen, thus totaling sixty. And if you say that Timna should be excluded because she was a woman, then count Abraham in the number.
and eighty concubines: Noah and his sons until Abraham, all the generations of those who left the Ark (Song Zuta)-you will find them to be eighty. And just as the queens, who are the kings’ wives, are superior in greatness to the concubines, so were Abraham and his descendants of great esteem, and superior in their esteem over everyone, as you will see. Hagar was the daughter of kings [and became Sarah’s maidservant (Gen. Rabbah 45:1)]. Timna was the daughter of rulers and became Esau’s concubine (ibid. 82:15), and Scripture says (Gen. 14:17): “to the Valley of Shaveh (שָׁוֶה), etc.” They all unanimously (הֻשְווּ) resolved to make Abraham king over them.
and innumerable maidens: All these were divided into many families.

Other explanations

Ralbag explains that this explains the כחות הנפש, the way the soul is set up.

Ibn Ezra says

ששים המה מלכות – הם אלופים שהיו בשעיר (בראשית ל״ו).1 ושמנים פילגשים – נח ובניו, וכן הם במספר (בראשית י׳).2 ועלמות – בני ישמעאל.

He also says as an alternative that it refers to the people of the world.

ששים המה – מפרשים הוציאו מספר ששים ושמונים בני נח ובני אברהם עם בני עשו בן בנו. ועלמות אין מספר – שאין להם ייחוס.

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    The fact that the verse has allegorical interpretations does not in itself answer the question of what the word literally means
    – Double AA
    Jun 3, 2021 at 19:25
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    @DoubleAA On the contrary, te basic intent of Shir Hashirim is intended to be allegorical or homiletical and not literal. The point of the answer is that the word וַעֲלָמ֖וֹת was used specifically not to be virgins. Indeed, the use of almah actually allows it to connect to the idea that just as the other two are not virgins, this also would not be a virgin. Jun 3, 2021 at 23:54
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    I never said it wasn't intended to be allegorical. The allegory is just not relevant to the question
    – Double AA
    Jun 4, 2021 at 12:14
  • @DoubleAA Two points. 1. The literal word is not meant in any case. 2. The literal word is specifically not meant to be besulah related either. I will add that to the answer. Jun 4, 2021 at 14:15
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    sabba The mashal has to be understandable for there to be a nimshal. The words have literal meanings even if it is unquestionably 'just' a mashal. The question is what exactly is the mashal here and why was it composed that way.
    – Double AA
    Jun 4, 2021 at 14:16

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