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Why in the prayer:

יי עז לעמו יתן , יי יברך את-עמו בשלום

is the word יברך followed by את,? Both יברך & יתן are forms of a verb. Does anyone have any sources that address this grammar sentence structure?

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  • 3
    The quoted line is Psalms 29:11
    – Double AA
    May 30 at 23:45
  • 2
    What is confusing you about the את? Do you also expect it elsewhere or do you not expect it in this spot? What do you know about this word? Help us help you.
    – magicker72
    May 30 at 23:53
  • Most verbs have את after from what I understand. The sentence structure makes that impossible in the יברך verse, but I am just curious if anyone has come across any commentary on this odd sentence structure. May 31 at 0:19
  • Are you wondering why the first part of the line isn't structured like the sentence in Shoftim 9:29 ":שופטים פרק ט וּמִי יִתֵּן אֶת הָעָם הַזֶּה בְּיָדִי"?
    – rosends
    May 31 at 1:45
  • Yes, exactly. I am also wondering if this may fall under מעשה’ מרכבה?‘ May 31 at 1:59
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As can be seen in this Wiktionary entry, the preposition את is

[u]sed to introduce a semantically definite direct object.

The first clause (ה' עוז לעמו יתן) contains no definite direct object (the direct object עוז (strength) is not semantically definite) and thus there is no need for את.

The second clause (ה' יברך את עמו בשלום) does contain a definite direct object - the semantically definite עמו (His people) is the direct object of the verb יברך (He will bless). Therefore, it is preceded by את.

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