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We circumcise stillborn babies for many reasons (see e.g., here). Would the same apply for one who it was unhealthy for him to receive a brit milah?

For example, let's say person A's two brothers both died receiving a brit milah. We assume that he too will die from the brit milah and do not give him a brit milah. When he dies, should we give him a brit milah just like we would give the stillborn a brit milah?

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    Related: "Why is a bris performed after death"?
    – Tamir Evan
    Commented Apr 20, 2021 at 1:04
  • No, this would not be kavod ha'mes.
    – The GRAPKE
    Commented Apr 20, 2021 at 7:52
  • 2
    @TheGRAPKE burial societies in Israel appear to see it differently: jta.org/1993/08/17/archive/post-mortem-circumcisions-opposed - if you dig into the issue you see that some believe that being uncircumcised is shameful, see e.g., here
    – mbloch
    Commented Apr 20, 2021 at 8:52
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    @TheGRAPKE absolutely, and if you read the survey of sources, you will see it is not at all black and white that one should circumcise. The SA seems to have innovated in making a clear ruling
    – mbloch
    Commented Apr 20, 2021 at 9:00
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    @YosefZaghi These are kabbalistic notions, but do not override the halachical darkei noam principle (outorah.org/p/38311).
    – The GRAPKE
    Commented Apr 21, 2021 at 6:53

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