In connection with the production of the Septuagint at the request of King Ptolemy, the Talmud says:
And [in listing unclean animals], instead of writing “And the hare [אַרְנֶבֶת -- arnevet]”, [the rabbis] wrote “And the short-legged beast [צְעִירַת הָרַגְלַיִם -- tze’irat haraglayim]”, because Ptolemy’s wife was named Arnevet, and they were afraid the king would say: The Jews have mocked me and inserted my wife’s name in the Torah. [Therefore, they referred to the hare only by one of its characteristic features.] [Megillah 9b]
How would the king even know that the Torah had the word "Arnevet" in it? Wouldn't he see only the translation of the word "hare" into Greek?
But the Talmud may be read as implying that they also wrote a Torah in Hebrew. Did they produce a different scroll in Hebrew?