I would like to have an explanation of Psalm 82. According to an absurd interpretation, G.d and Elyon are different individuals. In the Psalm it would be written that "G.d resides in the assembly of El". Here, now I come to the question. In Hebrew the words are baʿădat-ʾēl.
I know it must be translated as "divine-assembly". But an author instead explains disputing this translation:
«The phrase" assembly of 'Ȇl "(' ăḏaṯ - 'ȇl) is formed from the singular feminine (' ăḏaṯ -) + the singular masculine noun ('ȇl). The noun (' ăḏaṯ -) is in a constructive state with the noun ('ȇl), the latter in an absolute state. For those who do not remember it, the construct state of Hebrew grammar is the complement of specification rendered with "of". The first noun is said in construct state or regent name, the second noun is said to be in an absolute state or right name. The right name ('ȇl) is here a proper name, and like all proper names they do not take the article because they are self-determined: the Semitic writer is referring to the supreme power of Ugarit and not to any power. The determination of the right name ('ȇl) also determines the ruling name (' ăḏaṯ -), as the Hebrew grammar dictates, so the translation is "the assembly of 'Ȇl" and not, " divine assembly ".»
This is incorrect.If what this author says about the construct is true, then why, for example, in Genesis 31,13; 46: 3 the Torah says האל (hāʾēl) that is preceded by the article?
Basically, how do you think of that author's explanation of the construct state above?