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According to Midrash, because of Bilaam's wickedness, as emblematic of the wickedness of gentile prophets, God removed prophecy from the gentiles (Midrash Tanchuma, Balak, siman 1).

From the Talmud, tractate Brachot, 7a: (450-550 CE)

And Rabbi Yoḥanan said in the name of Rabbi Yosei regarding Moses’ request that the Divine Presence rest upon Israel as it once had: Moses requested three things from the Holy One, Blessed be He, at that time, all of which were granted him. He requested that the Divine Presence rest upon Israel and not leave, and He granted it to him, as it is stated: “For how can it be known that I have found grace in Your sight, I and Your people? Is it not in that You go with us, so that we are distinguished, I and Your people, from all the people that are on the face of the earth?” (Exodus 33:16). The request: Is it not in that You go with us, refers to the resting of the Divine Presence upon Israel. Moses requested that the Divine Presence not rest upon the nations of the world, and He granted it to him, as it is stated: “So that we are distinguished, I and Your people, from all the people on the face of the earth” (Exodus 33:16). Lastly, Moses requested that the ways in which God conducts the world be revealed to him, and He granted it to him, as it is stated: “Show me Your ways and I will know You” (Exodus 33:13).

1- If God removed prophecy from the gentiles ,Because of Bilaam's wickedness ,then how about Obadiah, who came after Bilaam,and was Edomite (gentile ) and a prophet ?

2- were gentile prophet sent only to the gentiles, and never to Israeli?

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Ovadiah the prophet, at the time of his prophecy, was Jewish, not a gentile. He had converted. See Sanhedrin 39b:

מר אפרים מקשאה תלמידו של רבי מאיר משום רבי מאיר עובדיה גר אדומי היה והיינו דאמרי אינשי מיניה וביה אבא ניזיל ביה נרגא

That is,

Efrayim Miksha’a, a student of Rabbi Meir, said in the name of Rabbi Meir: Obadiah was an Edomite convert. Consequently, he prophesied with regard to Edom. And this is as people say: From and within the forest comes the ax to it, as the handle for the ax that chops the tree is from the forest itself.

See also Rashi's commentary on the first verse of Ovadiah:

The vision of Obadiah—Why is Obadiah different that he was chosen to prophesy concerning Edom and did not prophesy any other prophecy? Our Sages of blessed memory stated: Obadiah was an Edomite proselyte. Said the Holy One, blessed be He: From them and in them will I bring upon them. Let Obadiah, who dwelt between two wicked people, Ahab and Jezebel, and did not learn from their deeds, come and impose retribution upon Esau, who dwelt between two righteous people, Isaac and Rebecca, and did not learn from their deeds. [from Sanhedrin 39b]

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  • thanx for the answer ,still I'm a little bit confused, the word "gentile" according the answer "someone who doesn't believe in the religion of beni Israel" is a "gentile" ,once he convert to Judaism he no longer a "gentile" ? Am I right? – capri reds Apr 1 at 23:35
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    not just "believing in the religion", but one who actively assumes a Jewish identity, and takes specific steps of conversion, is then a Jew and not a gentile. The technical term is "ger". But there are those who can believe but not have the status of Jew. E.g. a "ger toshav" is still a gentile settling in Israel, who does believe in the religion. – josh waxman Apr 1 at 23:43
  • A ger toshav does not believe in the religion in the sense of keeping it. – interested Apr 2 at 7:58
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    @resarcher If you're an American, I believe the source of your confusion might be the Evangelical/Protestant construction of religion as primarily a matter of belief. Many other religions, even other branches of Christianity, such as Orthodox and Catholicism, maintain that an adherent must perform particular rites to belong to the religion. In the case of Judaism, it's not simply a matter of belief, but an adherence to the law that G-d gave to Moses for the Jewish people. (I'm not a Jew, please add any corrections, etc). – user151841 Apr 2 at 17:49

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