Why separate dishes for Passover? I understand milk and meat dishes. I understand how hot and sharp can transmit treifness, how "noten ta'am l'fgam" works (I think). It all makes sense.

But what is the halachic rationale for thinking that you need separate Pesach meat dishes (from every day meat dishes) and separate Pesah milchic dishes? Is this just some super humra? From when and from whom? By what reasoning? I've never heard it argued that hametzdich things like wheat and oats impart any flavor or even any "essence" into an absorbent material. Did I just miss that? Can someone explain, hopefully with a source or two to consult? I feel like I must have missed some basic halachic / physical / metaphysical principle.

  • 2
    I get it and accept the answer below. I suppose the reason for my stupid question is that the issue only comes up in one direction from hametz plates to passover plates... after passover you can just use hametz on them immediately. In contrast when you kasher a meat plate to use for milk, you have to do it again to get back to meat. But that's not relevant here - it just explains why hametz free feels like a different kind of issue, and why I was confused.
    – Mike
    Mar 18, 2021 at 17:36

1 Answer 1


Chametz is getting absorbed in the same way than milk and meat are. The reverse would be surprising. Why would meat and milk be absorbed but not chametz? (see this explicitly stated in third paragraph here)

Therefore one cannot cook in the same dishes since chametz is not annulled in sixty (and in any case we don't use that rule before the fact). In older times, people would kosher their dishes for Pesach (most often by immersing them in hot water). With modern wealth and convenience it has become easier to use separate dishes since they are so cheap.

For more see here, here and there.

  • Most people don't have an extra pesach oven or a pesach stove so the kashering rules still are used at least once in most households.
    – Double AA
    Mar 19, 2021 at 0:53

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