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The Talmud (Sanhedrin 99a) wrote :

תניא אידך כי דבר ה' בזה זה האומר אין תורה מן השמים ואפילו אמר כל התורה כולה מן השמים חוץ מפסוק זה שלא אמרו הקדוש ברוך הוא אלא משה מפי עצמו זהו כי דבר ה' בזה It is taught in another baraita:

“Because he has despised the word of the Lord”; this is a reference to one who says the Torah did not originate from Heaven. And even if one says the entire Torah originated from Heaven except for this verse, i.e., any one verse, claiming that the Holy One, Blessed be He, did not say it but Moses himself said it on his own, this is included in the category of: “Because he has despised the word of the Lord.”

However, it could be possible to say that the "narrative" part was written by Moses, and the parts where there is no "And G-d said to Moses etc.".

So where did Hazal see this in the torah, that all verses are from G-d?

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  • Is the question, What is the internal evidence in the Torah that the entire text was given from G-d to Moses?
    – MichoelR
    Jan 21 at 21:13
  • @MichoelR yes I think.
    – EzrielS
    Jan 21 at 21:20
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    In that case, it sounds like an interesting question. How do you know it is implied internally, rather than being an oral tradition?
    – MichoelR
    Jan 22 at 0:16
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    After all, there anyhow needs to be an oral tradition about the authenticity of the Torah, or it wouldn't matter what it says inside!
    – MichoelR
    Jan 22 at 0:22
  • I suppose it could be an answer, however when the Guemara say something it search to a proof, at least a source, and not just as "all" was from an oral tradition. Even more, I think, where it's such fundamental question.
    – EzrielS
    Jan 22 at 11:01
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Let me modify your question a little. Here is a full(er) quote extending yours:

'“Because he has despised the word of the Lord”; this is a reference to one who says the Torah did not originate from Heaven. And even if one says the entire Torah originated from Heaven except for this verse, i.e., any one verse, claiming that the Holy One, Blessed be He, did not say it but Moses himself said it on his own, this is included in the category of: “Because he has despised the word of the Lord.” And even if one says the entire Torah originated from Heaven except for this inference [דקדוק] inferred by the Sages, or except for this kal v'chomer [ק"ו], or except for this gezeirah shavah [גזירה שוה], this is included in the category of: “Because he has despised the word of the Lord.”' [Sanhedrin 99a]

Notice that the same verse, "he has despised the word of the Lord" applies both to the written Torah (one verse, etc.) and to the oral Torah. It is all "the word of the Lord".
Now within the oral Torah there is an easy answer to your question. See Menachos 30a, concerning the last eight verses of the Torah:

אלא עד כאן הקב"ה אומר ומשה כותב ואומר מכאן ואילך הקב"ה אומר ומשה כותב בדמע
Until this point, i.e., the verse describing the death of Moses, the Holy One, Blessed be He, dictated and Moses wrote the text and repeated after Him. From this point forward, with regard to Moses’ death, the Holy One, Blessed be He, dictated and Moses wrote with tears

Here the gemara is discussing the last eight verses and the ones just before - all part of the "narrative" portion of the Chumash, and it says that they were dictated by G-d and transcribed by Moshe.
In that same section,

אמר לו ר"ש אפשר ס"ת חסר אות אחת וכתיב (דברים לא, כו) לקוח את ספר התורה הזה ושמתם אותו וגו'
Rabbi Shimon said to him: Is it possible that the Torah scroll was missing a single letter? But it is written that God instructed Moses: “Take this Torah scroll and put it by the side of the Ark of the Covenant” (Deuteronomy 31:26), indicating that the Torah was complete as is and that nothing further would be added to it.

(I wonder if the gemara refers implicitly to the verse before that one as well, as it uses the phrase עד תומם - "When Moshe finished writing the words of this Torah in a book, until they were completed.")
You see that at this point, what was until then completely oral (I'm leaving out a side machlokes about when various parts were written), and all from Hashem, was partially converted into the written part of the Torah. That unity known as a "Sefer Torah" was complete at that point and given over to Israel for safekeeping.
So in the oral tradition, your question is easy. If you are asking, though, Are there internal proofs within the Written Torah (as one sees, for instance about Megillas Esther, see gemara Megillah 7a), I'm not giving an answer. But the written and oral Torah are interlinked to such an extent [see also Shabbos 31a] that I do not think that such a demand would make sense - though it's an interesting request.

[By the way, I think that there is actually no dichotomy between "narrative" and "halachic" parts of the Torah. Even the halachic parts are really narrative: they each are enveloped in phrases like, G-d spoke to Moshe saying... Imagine if the Shulchan Aruch began with a phrase, R' Yosef Caro spoke to his students, saying...! The Chumash is really all one big story, so to speak.]

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  • Im not sure I understood what you say. Is it than, as there is a Gmara that state that all the torah is given to Moses until Its very end, then there is a Torah Chebeal Pe of that ? If so you cannot leaving out the fact that there is a machloket on who wrote the last 8 psoukim
    – EzrielS
    Jan 31 at 20:13
  • That is correct. But even the last eight pesukim were clearly dictated by G-d, like all the other thousands of pesukim. Just that Moshe was not the one to write them down. So I don't see that as relevant to your issue.
    – MichoelR
    Jan 31 at 20:33
  • You are saying that there's no difference between narrative parts and halachic. This is true, the real question is between the parts where it is written that G-d said that to Moses ( those parts are 95%halacha) and those where not ( mostly narrative parts).
    – EzrielS
    Feb 1 at 15:12
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    I am saying that those two types are not really different either. They are all narrative: some of them are narrations of G-d teaching halacha.
    – MichoelR
    Feb 11 at 0:32
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The Rambam in his 13 principles (i.e. the intro to perek cheilek in sanhedrin) says

שנאמין כי כל התורה הזאת הנתונה ע"י משה רבינו ע"ה שהיא כולה מפי הגבורה ... ואין הפרש בין ... ותמנע היתה פלגש ובין אנכי ה' אלהיך ושמע ישראל כי הכל מפי הגבורה והכל תורת ה' תמימה טהורה וקדושה אמת... והמאמר המורה על היסוד הזה הוא מה שנאמר (במדבר טז) ויאמר משה בזאת תדעון כי ה' שלחני לעשות כל המעשים האלה כי לא מלבי

The Rambam is saying that we learn from the story of Korach that anything that Moshe Rabbeinu chose to do was certainly from the instructions of Hashem, and this would include the writing down of the Torah.

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