Why does the shva cause the "vav" to be expressed in English as an adverb Now : "Ve" (וְ) instead of the conjunction And : "Va" (וַ), "Ve" (וְ), "U" (וּ) used to initiate each verse of Bereishit 1:3-31?

Genesis / Bereishit 1:2

Now-The-Earth was empty and-void, and-darkness was on the face [of] the deep, and-[the] Spirit [of] Elohim was hovering over the face [of] The-Water. ( וְהָאָ֗רֶץ הָֽיְתָ֥ה תֹ֨הוּ֙ וָבֹ֔הוּ וְח֖שֶׁךְ עַל־פְּנֵ֣י תְה֑וֹם וְר֣וּחַ אֱלֹהִ֔ים מְרַחֶ֖פֶת עַל־פְּנֵ֥י הַמָּֽיִם )

Max Lansberg's translation of Bereishit 1:2 [JPS 1917] states "Now-The-Earth", but Isaac Leeser's [1853 Pentateuch] English translation of Bereishit 1:2 states "and-The-Earth". | Curious to find why Max Lansberg (senior rabbi of the B'rith Kodesh Congregation, Rochester, New York) & Dr. Marcus Jastrow (JPS Editor-in-Chief) interpreted the "Ve" with shva as the adverb 'Now' instead of the Leeser "and". < mechon-mamre.org/e/et/jps1917.htm

  • The Judaica Press has "now" while the JPS 1985 has "and". Maybe your question should be aimed at one specific edition unless you have proof that this is a more general understanding tied to the vowel. Your title asks which is correct but the question leans towards understanding why "now" is caused by the shva.
    – rosends
    Jan 5 '21 at 17:25
  • 1
    The question has been updated : Why does the shva in Bereishit 1:2 express "vav" as an adverb (Now) in JPS 1917 translation? Jan 5 '21 at 17:34
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    I would say that this was an intentional stylistic change by JPS.
    – N.T.
    Jan 6 '21 at 11:48

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