In Mishna 2 of Perek 1 of Terumah, it is stated that a deaf person who can speak but not hear should not separate Terumah, but if he does the Terumah is valid. The commentators state that this is because he is unable to make a beracha that he can hear.

But this makes no sense to me. After all, a deaf person (who can speak) may eat, and eating also requires a blessing. What is different about Terumah that makes it forbidden for a deaf person to separate it?

  • For eating there is no alternative, since no one can say the bracha for him, but here anyone else can also take Terumah, so the Mishna makes a point of saying that is preferred.
    – simyou
    Dec 6 '20 at 8:45
  • The mishna doesn't seem to indicate that the deaf person can take terumah under any circumstances - just that it's valid after the fact. Is there a source saying it's permissible if no one else can do it for him? Dec 6 '20 at 10:03
  • See the gemara here: sefaria.org/Berakhot.15a.11?lang=bi&with=all&lang2=en
    – simyou
    Dec 6 '20 at 11:13

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .