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Off the top of my head, I bring three different verses describing the (enormous) wealth of our forefathers, each mentioning different parts of it:

  • Abraham: "וְאַבְרָם כָּבֵד מְאֹד בַּמִּקְנֶה בַּכֶּסֶף וּבַזָּהָב׃" - "Abram was very rich in cattle, silver, and gold." Genesis.13.2

  • Isaac: "וַיִּגְדַּל הָאִישׁ וַיֵּלֶךְ הָלוֹךְ וְגָדֵל עַד כִּי־גָדַל מְאֹד׃ וַיְהִי־לוֹ מִקְנֵה־צֹאן וּמִקְנֵה בָקָר וַעֲבֻדָּה רַבָּה..." - "and the man grew richer and richer until he was very wealthy: he acquired flocks and herds, and a large household (slaves)..." Genesis.26.13-14

  • Yaakov: "וַיִּפְרֹץ הָאִישׁ מְאֹד מְאֹד וַיְהִי־לוֹ צֹאן רַבּוֹת וּשְׁפָחוֹת וַעֲבָדִים וּגְמַלִּים וַחֲמֹרִים׃" - "So the man grew exceedingly prosperous, and came to own large flocks, maidservants and menservants, camels and asses." Genesis.31 (there are some more on Yaakov, meeting Esov)

While I don't see differences in lifestyles or cultures, the Torah uses different terms: e.g. money is mentioned with Abraham but not the others, camels and asses are mentioned with Yaakov, but not others, herds are mentioned with Isaac but clearly omitted with Yaakov.

Why?

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  • Why should it use the same terms? – Dov Nov 28 '20 at 20:33
  • @Dov Because each term would probably hint at a different aspect of the wealth. – Al Berko Nov 28 '20 at 20:38
  • Surely al pi pshat there's not much more to look into? – Dov Nov 28 '20 at 20:47

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