In Bereishis 4:1, the Pasuk describes the birth of Kayin:

וְהָאָדָם יָדַע אֶת־חַוָּה אִשְׁתּוֹ וַתַּהַר וַתֵּלֶד אֶת־קַיִן וַתֹּאמֶר קָנִיתִי אִישׁ אֶת־יְהוָה

Now the man knew his wife Chava, and she conceived and bore Kayin, saying, “I have gained a male child with the help of the LORD.”

However, the wording of the Pasuk is different than other times in which the birth of a child takes place.
For example, later on in the parshah, by the birth of Shes, (Bereishis 4:25):

וַיֵּדַע אָדָם עוֹד אֶת־אִשְׁתּוֹ וַתֵּלֶד בֵּן וַתִּקְרָא אֶת־שְׁמוֹ שֵׁת כִּי שָׁת־לִי אֱלֹהִים זֶרַע אַחֵר תַּחַת הֶבֶל כִּי הֲרָגוֹ קָיִן

Adam knew his wife again, and she bore a son and named him Shes, meaning, “God has provided me with another offspring in place of Hevel,” for Kayin had killed him.

In the second Pasuk, first it mentions that she had a son, and then it says she named him Shes. The first Pasuk just says that she had a son whose name was Kayin.

Is there any reason why the first Pasuk tells the story differently than usual?

  • Crossposted: judaism.codidact.com/questions/278550
    – Dani
    Oct 16 '20 at 19:06
  • What about Hevel's birth? I don't think you've done a convincing job showing that either of these is anomalous. Only that these two are different.
    – Double AA
    Oct 16 '20 at 19:08
  • Consider all these other places where it doesn't say "she had a son" and then "they named him X". וַיֵּ֤דַע קַ֙יִן֙ אֶת־אִשְׁתּ֔וֹ וַתַּ֖הַר וַתֵּ֣לֶד אֶת־חֲנ֑וֹךְ and וַתֵּ֥לֶד עָדָ֖ה אֶת־יָבָ֑ל and וַתֵּ֤לֶד גַּם־הִוא֙ אֶת־טֶ֣בַח וְאֶת־גַּ֔חַם וְאֶת־תַּ֖חַשׁ וְאֶֽת־מַעֲכָֽה and וַתֵּ֣לֶד ל֗וֹ אֶת־זִמְרָן֙ וְאֶת־יָקְשָׁ֔ן וְאֶת־מְדָ֖ן וְאֶת־מִדְיָ֑ן וְאֶת־יִשְׁבָּ֖ק וְאֶת־שֽׁוּחַ and וַתֵּ֣לֶד ל֗וֹ אֶת־נָדָב֙ וְאֶת־אֲבִיה֔וּא אֶת־אֶלְעָזָ֖ר וְאֶת־אִיתָמָֽר
    – Double AA
    Oct 16 '20 at 19:11
  • @DoubleAA The birth of the Shevatim all say "she had a son" and then "they named him X"
    – Dani
    Oct 16 '20 at 19:49
  • 1
    Ok, so we have a handful on each side then.
    – Double AA
    Oct 16 '20 at 19:50

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