This is a follow-up to my previous question:
In the following excerpt, does the term
בְּזָדוֹן imply mutual consent, or simply a unilateral decision on the part of one of the two people involved, presumably the Israelite ?
אֲבָל יִשְׂרָאֵל הַבָּא עַל הַכּוּתִית ... כֵּיוָן שֶׁבָּא עַל הַכּוּתִית בְּזָדוֹן הֲרֵי זוֹ נֶהֱרֶגֶת מִפְּנֵי שֶׁבָּא לְיִשְׂרָאֵל תַּקָּלָה עַל יָדֶיהָ כִּבְהֵמָה
The term בְּזָדוֹן, in and of itself, relates to wilfulness or intent; the only question is whose, hence the ambiguity. The above-linked translation, for instance, seems to interpret it as relating primarily to the sentence's subject (יִשְׂרָאֵל).
Could someone with working knowledge of Hebrew lend me a helpful hand in hopefully solving this puzzling dilemma ?