During the mi shebeirach for cholim we insert the reason that we temper our cries. On Shabbat, we say "shabbat hi miliz'ok" (the Shabbat forbids us from crying out) and on Yom Tov, we say "Yom Tov hu miliz'ok."

But on Yom Tov that falls on a Shabbat the text in my machzor reads "Shabbat v'yom tov hu miliz'ok." If either one of those is reason enough, why would the text of the prayer list them both? We don't refrain because there are two of them -- we refrain because it is either one of them.

  • Maybe so as not to slight the other by picking a preference? This text doesn't need to be based on a halakhic rule (indeed the entire paragraph as commonly printed these days is paradoxical and against many halakhot)
    – Double AA
    Oct 5 '20 at 0:24
  • Without questioning whether one can offend a day, doesn't this create a false logical statement? "The sabbath AND yom tov forbid us..." might lead one to assume that it is only the combination of the two that has that effect.
    – rosends
    Oct 5 '20 at 0:25
  • Saying only Shabbat could lead someone to falsely derive that on only Yom Tov it's permitted. There's no way to prevent every logical fallacy.
    – Double AA
    Oct 5 '20 at 0:26
  • 1
    Why view it as two separate reasons? If you ask me why I was late and I say that my front tires blew out it doesn’t mean that if only one of the front tires had blown out I would have been able to continue my journey. It’s just the facts of the case that both tires blew out. Same here. The facts of the case is that it is Shabbat and Yom Tov.
    – Alex
    Oct 5 '20 at 0:35
  • Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/27631/170
    – msh210
    Oct 5 '20 at 11:21

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