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Why are some prophecies described as if they already happend, as if they occurred in the past, while at the time/moment the prophecy is spoken it all still has to take place and talks about the future.

And with such examples to be found in the Tenach how does one distinguish between prophecies that describe past events and future events? If clearly soms prophecies that describe things in the past are actually talking about the future.

I find this to be quite confusing to be honest.

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  • The prophetic vision being witnessed in real time (verbs in the present tense), and described in writing a short while thereafter (verbs in the past tense), will not unfold in history until a long time afterwards (verbs in the future tense).
    – user18041
    Sep 27, 2020 at 13:43
  • "And you should know that it is a typical behavior of the past tense verbs in the holy language to use a past tense verb in place of a future tense verb (which are the letters איתן), and this is mostly in prophecies because the matter is clear as if it passed, because it has already been decreed." - Radak
    – Y.Talmid
    Sep 30, 2020 at 6:33

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