1

in some siddurim the line in Tehillim 150 is written הַלְלוּהוּ בְּצִלְצְלֵי שָׁמַע. הַלְלוּהוּ בְּצִלְצְלֵי תְרוּעָה while in others it is written with a veis in the first "b'tziltzilei" and a beis in the second one. Which version is more correct/authoritative?

1
  • 2
    Why did you revert my edit? The current title gives very little info about the content of the question, whereas the one I proposed captures it. Also, the current title focuses on "ashkenaz siddur", whereas the line is in T'hilim and the question really applies to the latter. Finally, "yet another" makes no sense out of context (the context, I mean, of previous questions; we can't assume any reader who comes across this question will have seen those). – msh210 Sep 23 '20 at 9:37
4

The Aleppo codex has it with a "v". The Leningrad codex has it with a "v". Minchas Shay doesn't comment on this. I haven't checked any other authorities, but you can probably assume that "v" is okay; as always, for practical guidance, consult your own rabbi.

7
  • Just a sidenote: Even though I strongly prefer the Aleppo Codex orthography against other traditions, there are many cases, where I haven't seen a single siddur following that version. There was a huge controversy in the 90s about the paragraphs, when (mostly anonymous) pashkvilen from Bnei Brak supported the Aleppo Codex, which was fiercely rejected by prominent Jerusalem rabbonim in favour of the other traditions. So it's not that trivial to choose. – Kazi bácsi Sep 23 '20 at 9:40
  • This is sort of missing the point. The dagesh follows or not from the trop which depends on the word length, etc. – Double AA Sep 23 '20 at 12:41
  • @Kazi that's really not a good summary of the history. The anonymous people were largely from Jerusalem, and their arguments were largely based on demonstrably not-old "traditions". It's true there are still people on both sides, but which is the trivial choice depends largely on if you want to actually go look at the old texts or would rather assume the Tanakh you grew up with is be definition exactly representative of "the tradition". – Double AA Sep 23 '20 at 12:49
  • @DoubleAA I suppose the key question is whether you give authority to old manuscripts or you follow the chain of rabbinic decisions (who might not have had access to all the manuscripts we have in a few clicks). – Kazi bácsi Sep 23 '20 at 12:56
  • 1
    @DoubleAA re your comment to me: The OP didn't ask why there's no "b". It asked which version is "more correct/authoritative". IMO this answer answers "authoritative" quite well; trop may enter into an answer to "correct" and you should feel free to post such. – msh210 Sep 23 '20 at 14:53

You must log in to answer this question.