0

We know that Jews are able to say brachot on behalf of each other due to the concept of "Kol Bnei Yisrael Aravim Ze-Le-Ze", or "All Jews are guarantors on behalf of one another", so that if Reuven makes a hagefen over wine and has Shmuel in mind and Shmuel says "amen", the latter has fulfilled his obligation.

May we, though, extend this concept to non-Jews, who are neither commanded to make a bracha before/after enjoying this world nor halachic guarantors to one another? If Ralph and Abdullah are studying together to convert to Judaism, may Ralph be yotzi on Abdullah's "Borei Menei Mezonot"?

  • 3
    I think you're mistaken in your premise. Someone can say brachos for someone else because of the rule of Shomeah KeOneh. Arvus is only relevant if the speaker has already fulfilled their obligation, and nevertheless intend to help someone else fulfill theirs. Do you want to know if non-Jews have Shomeah KeOneh? Or you're asking specifically when they've fulfilled their obligation (which I'm not sure is a possible case for a non-Jew). Also, Shmuel in your example fulfills his requirement whether or not he says Amen. – robev Sep 22 '20 at 21:23
  • I don't understand what it means for Ralph to "be yotzi" a bracha – Double AA Sep 22 '20 at 22:17
  • @DoubleAA I guess Eino Metzuveh VeOseh through hearing from someone else? – robev Sep 23 '20 at 1:22
  • @robev do zarim who duchen get schar as einam metzuvvim? – Double AA Sep 23 '20 at 17:04
  • That's not a good example as it's prohibited for a zar to duchen (Kesubos 24b). Also it might be a dispute between the Beis HaLevi and the Chazon Ish if shomeh keoneh works for duchenen. But I hear what you're getting at. – robev Sep 23 '20 at 17:09

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .