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A man who wants to convert who alread have a Child without a marriage (out marriage son).
What are the implications of this situation?
If he converts, will his child kept being considered his child? or Will be as he never had a Child?
And the status of the child? Will he be an orphan ?
Will beit din allow such conversion? Will It be considered moraly correct?
Are there examples on tanach or Holly books or referencies as examples of this situation ? Please inform me
The Talmud [Yevamot 62a; also Bekhorot 47a] discusses the matter in the context of whether the child he had as a non-Jew qualifies him for having fulfilled the commandment to be fruitful and multiply.
The Shulchan Arukh [Even HaEzer 1:7] rules as follows:
If he had sons in his lifetime and he was an idolater and all parties converts (to Judaism), his mitzvah is fulfilled. But if he has children when he is a slave and he and they are freed he has not fulfilled his obligation until he bears one after he is freed.
