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A man who wants to convert who alread have a Child without a marriage (out marriage son).

What are the implications of this situation?

If he converts, will his child kept being considered his child? or Will be as he never had a Child?

And the status of the child? Will he be an orphan ?

Will beit din allow such conversion? Will It be considered moraly correct?

Are there examples on tanach or Holly books or referencies as examples of this situation ? Please inform me

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    Usually a beit din would not allow someone to convert unless all his family converts, as it would be quite difficult to keep all the mitzvot in a such household. The best thing is to approach a local rabbi with the particular question. – Kazi bácsi Sep 9 '20 at 8:58
  • See Minchas Chinuch first mitzvah he says ther IDROH – FalseMessiah Sep 9 '20 at 17:23
  • Consider he is living alone, not with his family – eeerrrttt Sep 10 '20 at 13:14
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The Talmud [Yevamot 62a; also Bekhorot 47a] discusses the matter in the context of whether the child he had as a non-Jew qualifies him for having fulfilled the commandment to be fruitful and multiply.

The Shulchan Arukh [Even HaEzer 1:7] rules as follows:

If he had sons in his lifetime and he was an idolater and all parties converts (to Judaism), his mitzvah is fulfilled. But if he has children when he is a slave and he and they are freed he has not fulfilled his obligation until he bears one after he is freed.

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  • Didn't understand. Can you clarify ? – eeerrrttt Sep 17 '20 at 8:14

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