A man who wants to convert who alread have a Child without a marriage (out marriage son).

What are the implications of this situation?

If he converts, will his child kept being considered his child? or Will be as he never had a Child?

And the status of the child? Will he be an orphan ?

Will beit din allow such conversion? Will It be considered moraly correct?

Are there examples on tanach or Holly books or referencies as examples of this situation ? Please inform me

  • 3
    Usually a beit din would not allow someone to convert unless all his family converts, as it would be quite difficult to keep all the mitzvot in a such household. The best thing is to approach a local rabbi with the particular question. Commented Sep 9, 2020 at 8:58
  • See Minchas Chinuch first mitzvah he says ther IDROH Commented Sep 9, 2020 at 17:23
  • Consider he is living alone, not with his family
    – eeerrrttt
    Commented Sep 10, 2020 at 13:14

1 Answer 1


The Talmud [Yevamot 62a; also Bekhorot 47a] discusses the matter in the context of whether the child he had as a non-Jew qualifies him for having fulfilled the commandment to be fruitful and multiply.

The Shulchan Arukh [Even HaEzer 1:7] rules as follows:

If he had sons in his lifetime and he was an idolater and all parties converts (to Judaism), his mitzvah is fulfilled. But if he has children when he is a slave and he and they are freed he has not fulfilled his obligation until he bears one after he is freed.

  • Didn't understand. Can you clarify ?
    – eeerrrttt
    Commented Sep 17, 2020 at 8:14

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