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In the chumash, there are approximately 10 places where a law is given to the Children of Israel and is preceded by Hashem's telling Moshe to command (tzav) the people, or certain people. An example is B'midbar 5:2 "צַ֚ו אֶת־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל וִֽישַׁלְּחוּ֙"

But in many other cases, laws are conveyed with other verbs (such as "va'amarta", Vayikra 19:2). In a few cases, both a tzav-rooted AND an amar-rooted word are used (B'midbar 34:2).

Is there a difference in the nature of the law which would call for its being framed by a tzav-based word vs. any other word?

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  • sefaria.org/Rashi_on_Leviticus.6.2.1?lang=bi
    – Joel K
    Aug 13 '20 at 13:37
  • @JoelK I'm not sure how that works for Bmidbar 34:2 which doesn't take effect immediately, nor do some of the tzav commands seem to require more zerizut than others.
    – rosends
    Aug 13 '20 at 14:02
  • I agree it's by no means a fully fleshed out answer to your question (hence the comment). More like a starting point for further research
    – Joel K
    Aug 13 '20 at 14:03

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