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Suppose there is a sentence like this :
"At evening of the first day of the week"

What does it mean ?
A. is it the "beginning" of the first day of the week?
(morning of the first day of the week has not arrive yet)

B. Or is it the "almost end" of the first day of the week?
(morning of the first day of the week has past).

Thank you.

This question come based on the sentence in John 20:19:

On the evening of that first day of the week, when the disciples were together, with the doors locked for fear of the Jewish leaders

In the Bible of my language, the word "evening" is translated to "night".
Also in my country there is what it called an "Evening Prayer" ---> "Maghrib Prayer" which starts around the Twelfth hour, right after the sunset.

In English world, there is a commentary for that verse which also mentioned it as "night", as read in this link.

So, if it's "night" (evening = right after the sunset) - I thought that first day of the week has not the morning yet.

But some said that "evening" in the verse is not "night" but around the Ninth hour which to me the Ninth hour is something more like "afternoon" than "evening". So here, that first day of the week already has the morning some hours ago, and within three or four hours more it will be the second day of the week.

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  • judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/95083/…
    – rosends
    Commented Aug 9, 2020 at 11:18
  • @rosends, thank you for the link. But i am sorry as i cannot find the word "evening" in that link.
    – karma
    Commented Aug 9, 2020 at 12:49
  • the link I sent discusses the Jewish legally construct. Your question does not ground itself in Judaism (other than a vague "Jewish time" in the title) so I'm trying to provide background so you can better anchor your question in Judaism.
    – rosends
    Commented Aug 9, 2020 at 12:51
  • @rosends, oke - thank you for the link. The sentence I propose in my question is based on John 20:19. That's why I ask here because I thought the writer of John 20:19 is an Israel person. Please have a look on my addition in my question. Thanks.
    – karma
    Commented Aug 9, 2020 at 17:04
  • 1
    @karma The mythology of John has nothing to do with Judaism.. You would need to cite the Bible (the five books of Moses) or the Prophets.
    – sabbahillel
    Commented Aug 9, 2020 at 20:58

1 Answer 1

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Would have to see the context.

Generally speaking, though, a new Jewish day begins at "nightfall." "Nightfall" is defined as sometime between sunset and, let's say 72 minutes later, depending on who you ask.

Therefore: Sabbath starts at "nightfall" on Friday. It is definitely not Sabbath before sunset, so we play it safe and start Sabbath at sunset on Friday.

It would end at nightfall on Saturday ... but to play it safe (always better to keep a little extra Sabbath), we wait till ... let's say 42--72 minutes post-sunset Saturday night to declare "yup, Sabbath's definitely over."

Almost all Jewish holidays, therefore, begin at sunset the previous day. E.g. Rosh Hashana 2020 is listed as Saturday, September 19th, but it starts at sunset on the 18th.

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  • Hi Shalom, thank you for the answer. So am I correct that according Jewish time, there is no "border-time" at the words "evening" ? I mean, from what I read the internet, according to the general time, "evening" is considered between 6 pm - 9 pm (though it also can be said it's a night time). 5 pm is "afternoon". So, if for example the sentence : "at evening of the first day of the month" ---> then in Jewish time: maybe it's just past the first day of the month (no morning yet) ... but also maybe it's just towards the end of the first day of the month (morning already past).
    – karma
    Commented Aug 9, 2020 at 10:09

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