When discussing the discrepancy between the use of the words Shamor and Zachor in the two versions of the Aseret Hadevarim, commentators explain that the two words were said at Sinai simultaneously.

Are there commentators who say that the same explanation is used for any/all of the rest of the differences in text (eg Shav vs. Shaker)? If so, what lessons did those simultaneities teach? If not, why not?

  • 1
    See Ibn Ezra's lengthy discussion.
    – Alex
    Aug 2, 2020 at 3:02

2 Answers 2


Indeed, Shevuos 20b-21a does infer halachos from the fact that the variant texts were said in a single utterance.

  • Zachor and Shamor: Whoever is obligated in one is obligated in both, to include women in the positive commandments of Shabbos
  • Shav and Sheker: Either to teach that one receives lashes for either, or to teach that one must bring a Karban for either.

The Gemara there does not infer any halachos from the change between “don’t covet” and “don’t desire.”


Rashi Shemos 20,1 says all of the Dibrot were said at once by Hashem prior to elaboration:

אֵת כָּל הַדְּבָרִים הָאֵלֶּה" - מלמד שאמר הקב"ה עשרת הדברות בדבור אחד מה שאי אפשר לאדם לומר כן א"כ מה ת"ל עוד אנכי ולא יהיה לך שחזר ופירש על כל דבור ודבור בפני עצמו

"And G-d spoke all of these words"- this teaches He spoke all the words at once which is impossible for a human to do likewise, what does the parsha starting "Anochi" teach us? That G-d subsequently elaborated every commandment independently.

I assume the reason is so everything was included in G-d's initial phrase that all of Klal Yisroel heard, so that they couldn't claim to Moshe after the first two elaborated Dibros that nothing else was included.

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