Can a "kosher eating only" Jew who receives a coupon for a free meal at a non-kosher restraurant give that coupon to another jew, even if they don't keep kosher? I know you are not making them go and eat non kosher food, or even know for sure that they will use it, but you are making it easier for them and even encouraging them to eat non kosher food.

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    My instinct would be to avoid doing this, whether or not it's a technical violation of Lifnei Iver, but I'm not grounded enough in the relevant sources to offer an Answer. I don't see, though, why the kosher preferences of the first Jew matter. If facilitating the other's non-kosher eating is problematic, it's problematic for all Jews, I expect.
    – Isaac Moses
    Apr 23, 2010 at 12:40
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    Perhaps there might be a secondary sin of morris eyin. If a kosher eater gives a restraurant coupon to another jew, and others find out maybe one will think that restraurant is kosher, but if a non kosher eater gave out that same coupon no one would assume the restraurant is kosher. At least that was my rationelle in adding the part about the first jews kosher eating status.
    – Ken
    Apr 23, 2010 at 18:16
  • What do you mean "kosher eating only" Jew? A Jew who keeps kashrut but not other mitzvot? I guess if the only thing that matters to him is Kashrut, then it would be fine for him, in his mind. But then he is not being a good Jew. Apr 17, 2012 at 15:26

1 Answer 1


It's prohibited. While not the Biblical "lifnei iver" as he could eat non-kosher with or without you, it's the rabbinic "mesayea y'dei ovrei aveira" as you're still helping facilitate his transgression here.

There are various loopholes applied to get out of the prohibition of mesyaea if there's a good need, e.g. many rabbis allow inviting non-observant people for Shabbos even if you know they'll drive. But in a case of a non-kosher-restaurant coupon, I just don't see it.

You could certainly give it to your non-Jewish next-door-neighbor or co-worker. There are enough times that they have done (or will do) a favor for you, that it's only fair. ולפיכך אין בזה משום ״לא תחנם״

(Yes if you gave it to a non-Jewish acquaintance, you would be deriving benefit from the coupon in the form of an "I-owe-you-one", but that's okay for virtually all non-kosher foods other than Ruminantia-meat-cooked-with-Ruminantia-milk, and maybe non-kosher wine according to Sephardim.)

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    Nice answer, and I appreciate the way you covered ״לא תחנם״. Of course, sources would make it better, and even though you're being machmir, an "ask your Rabbi" wouldn't hurt.
    – Isaac Moses
    Apr 23, 2010 at 13:57
  • Shalom, Ditto to everything Isaac wrote!
    – Yahu
    Apr 23, 2010 at 16:03
  • Shalom, I like your answer but not sure I'm corfortable with the part abot Rabbis allowing invites to Non-Observant for Shabbot. I've invited family members for Pesach Sedar knowing they will drive, but I would contend that it's as much my sin as their's for driving. I do it too keep Shalom between the various relatives, but never felt good about doing it.
    – Ken
    Apr 23, 2010 at 16:11
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    Isn't it a mitzvah to give it to a non-Jew? Devarim 14:21
    – Jeremy
    Apr 26, 2010 at 15:25
  • The source for the quid-pro-quo part is תוספתא מסכת עבודה זרה פרק ג which is quoted by the Rosh in Avodah Zara 20a
    – Curiouser
    May 18, 2011 at 17:08

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