I am an Italian Noahide.

I read in Jewish sources that the expression "Torah of Moses" is sometimes used.

In the Christian Gospels, on the other hand, I have seen that in certain passages it is written that both Jesus and the Pharisees refer to a prescription from the Written Torah beginning the phrase with the expression "Moses commanded" or "Moses said". This type of sentences has left me very perplexed in terms of historical reliability,as in the Jewish tradition the author of the Pentateuch is HaShem Himself, while Moses only received and recorded the Revelation in writing.

Are there therefore attestations in the Jewish context about the use of phrases such as "Moses commanded" or "Moses said" to indicate prescriptions of the Torah?

  • Do things like Joshua 8:35 or Kings 2:18:12 count? There are a fair number of things like that – Double AA May 31 '20 at 22:54
  • @DoubleAA Personally I do not have the competence to answer. The quotes you made are actually important, but they are of a general nature, they do not concern specific commandments of the Torah, as in the case of the use of "Moses commanded" present in the Christian Gospels. But you may be right: they could count – Amos74 May 31 '20 at 23:04

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .