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This may be a bit off the wall and it is only a hypothetical question. If a Jewish man marries a non-Jewish woman and then he dies before they have any children, would she be expected, assuming she was willing, to marry one of his brothers, or agree to chalitzah? I would assume the answer is no in regard to a Levirate marriage as this would create a second intermarriage and the children would not be Jewish. This assumes that the duty to continue the deceased brother's line genetically is not as important as the prohibition against intermarriage. With regard to chalitzah I assume also no, as it only applies to Jews. However, I have no responsas, or halachah to back up my opinions. Any ideas?

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    "Marriages" between Jews and non-Jews are not considered halachically valid and so there are no issues pertaining to yibum or chalitzah arising in such a situation. – Josh K May 23 '20 at 18:01
  • Note that since you ask about a Jewish man and a nonJewish woman, even if she had given birth, the children are not considered his and he has died without heirs. Since he had never married, there is no way that she is any relation at all to his family. – sabbahillel May 24 '20 at 3:47
  • @sabbahillel Died with no heirs? He has no brothers? no cousins? – Alaychem goes to Codidact May 24 '20 at 11:59
  • @AlaychemRememberMonica I meant that he had no children so that he has no direct heirs. The property would move back to his father and then to his father's heirs (such as his brothers or his uncles). He is treated like Nadav and Avihu who died without children. – sabbahillel May 24 '20 at 13:01
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"Marriages" between Jews and non-Jews are not considered halachically valid and so there are no issues pertaining to yibum or chalitzah arising in such a situation. A source randomly citing this prohobition: https://ohr.edu/ask_db/ask_main.php/191/Q1/

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