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Can someone clear this up for me:

The MB in the 243 intro says that all heter ways to allow the work of schirus (renter) is only permissible when he pays a lump sum including the shabbos sum in one sum. However, he then says in S"K 3 that it's assur to have a sachir to rent (pay you a flat out fee) for a couple days because its going to be sachir shabbos (probably because he'll be renting it from thursday-monday and that'll be on shabbos that the sachir is renting it out). But whats the problem with that? Why does "Havlah" (paying the wages for shabbos and weekday as one sum) only work if it's for an entire year or month? Why not a couple of days? (he left out a week)...

So I just want to know why havlah doesnt work for a couple days... and why by a couple of days is it assur m'ikir hadin, but for a year or month it is mutar?

Possibly due to maras eyin only applying to a month + ? But either way the goy has to use it for a couple days before it becomes a month... IDK

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The difference is because if you do havla'ah with a person who does work on weekday and a separate work on Shabbos. This doesn't work since the earnings from Shabbos are not contractually combined with the earnings from the weekday. (Commerce And Shabbos By Rabbi Kushner). And also tthe Mishna Beurarah says that doing it for a weekend is like Schar Shabbos in S"K 3.

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