Second chapter, fifth passuk of Megillat Esther reads:

אִ֣ישׁ יְהוּדִ֔י הָיָ֖ה בְּשׁוּשַׁ֣ן הַבִּירָ֑ה וּשְׁמ֣וֹ מָרְדֳּכַ֗י בֶּ֣ן יָאִ֧יר בֶּן־שִׁמְעִ֛י בֶּן־קִ֖ישׁ אִ֥ישׁ יְמִינִֽי׃

In the fortress Shushan lived a Jew by the name of Mordecai, son of Jair son of Shimei son of Kish, a Benjaminite.

We see makafs (hyphens) by the two later mentioned predecessors but not between “ben” and “Yair”, why is it not present like the latter two?

  • I dared to edit your transliteration, please roll back if you don't like it. – Kazi bácsi Mar 7 '20 at 19:11
  • The simple answer is because there is a n'gina under it. A 'dargo' always comes with one before it. – interested Mar 7 '20 at 19:34
  • 1
    @interested that's not an answer, but a description. Why is there a negina and not a makaf? – Double AA Mar 8 '20 at 0:59
  • @DoubleAA Look at it the other way round. Why must they have a makaf. Because they must. Whereas the first doesnt need one so it can have a negina. At least the second one must have, so also the third has but the first doesnt need to have. – interested Mar 8 '20 at 2:19
  • 2
    It might have something to do with the fact that Moredicha was the son of Yair but Yair was not the son of Shmi... – sam Mar 8 '20 at 15:34

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .