I’am an Italian noahide.
Rambam states in his Sefer Hamitzvot (English translation by Rabbi Berel Bell):
“The 233rd mitzvah is that a person is commanded to marry his amah ivriyah. Either her master or his son is commanded to marry her; and this is known as the mitzvah of yi'ud."
Rabbi Bell adds, in note: "If she wants, see Hilchos Avadim 4: 8".
We read in Rambam’s Hilchos Avadim 4:8 (English translation by Rabbi Eliyahu Touger):
“A master may not designate an amah ivriyah as his wife or as his son's wife without her knowledge. Although her father already received money because of her, the Torah uses the term ya'adah, which implies with her knowledge.”
I do not know what is the Hebrew linguistic expression used by Rambam, but the requirement of "knowledge" do not seem to me equivalent to that of "consent".
I therefore ask myself: it was legally expected that the amah ivriyah would agree with this designation by her master or only that did the designation itself not take place in the absence of the woman?
I tried to consult the English translation of the specific Talmudic source (Kiddushin 18a-b), but I was unable to clarify my ideas.