In parshat B'shalach, the people complain a bunch. They do so in the plural form unless the verb is connected to their identity as a nation, a collective singular. However, in 17:3, the text moves back to the singular in the middle of the complain which begins in the plural:
וַיִּצְמָ֨א שָׁ֤ם הָעָם֙ לַמַּ֔יִם וַיָּ֥לֶן הָעָ֖ם עַל־מֹשֶׁ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר לָ֤מָּה זֶּה֙ הֶעֱלִיתָ֣נוּ מִמִּצְרַ֔יִם לְהָמִ֥ית אֹתִ֛י וְאֶת־בָּנַ֥י וְאֶת־מִקְנַ֖י בַּצָּמָֽא
The text could have stayed in the plural (us, our sons and our flocks) but instead expresses this as the singular, "me, my sons and my flocks". The translation at Sefaria renders this as the plural but I don't see why it wouldn't have then been written in the plural.
Note -- 16:3 is in the plural all the way through, as is 15:24 so I thought it had something to do with unity as a people, but it isn't consistent enough to correlate to some sort of national status.